Sunday, March 24, 2013

Why 2 = 1 is mathematical fallacy?

Question:
http://uk.answers.yahoo.com/question/index?qid=20130324022758AA7Sc9X

Why 2 = 1 is mathematical fallacy?

This question extends from:
http://uk.answers.yahoo.com/question/ind…

Mathematics is valid only for worldly existence (mundane 'lokika').
Mathematics cannot exist in non-existence.

Therefore, 0 (zero) should exist as an infinitesimal.

But, the existing infinitesimal value (from a subjective universe) as zero may not be emphasized in mathematics, due to 'precision' concern.

http://uk.answers.yahoo.com/question/ind…
2 = 1 proof

1 x 0 = 0
2 x 0 = 0
therefore, 1 x 0 = 2 x 0
cut zeros from both sides,
1=2
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http://mathforum.org/dr.math/faq/faq.fal…

Correct calculation is:

Let, 0 (zero) = Δ (infinitesimal)
If 1 = 1 + Δ then, 2 = 2(1 + Δ) = 2 + Δ2

(1+Δ) x Δ = 1Δ+Δ^2 = Δa

(2+Δ) x Δ = 2Δ+Δ^2 = Δb

Δa != (not equal) Δb

therefore
1=2 is a fallacy.
====

Additional Details

@Learner,
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/0_%28number…
"The mathematician Brahmagupta was the first to attempt to divide with zero, and thus the first to treat zero as an actual number rather than as just a placeholder or other identifier."

Don't you have any respect to the recommendations of the pioneer of math-zero 'Brahmagupta'?

This is why I already proved in many ways in other questions, that 'current education system' is false and western (not-original) thinking in incomplete.

Answer:

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